A 21-year-old G1 at 40 weeks, who underwent induction of labor for severe preeclampsia, delivered a 3900-g male infant via vaginal delivery after pushing for 21/2 hours. A second-degree midline laceration and sidewall laceration were repaired in the usual fashion under local analgesia. The estimated blood loss was 450 cc. Magnesium sulfate is continued postpartum for the seizure prophylaxis. Six hours after the delivery the patient has difficulty voiding. Which is the most likely cause of her problem?

a. Preeclampsia

b. Infusion of magnesium sulfate

c. Vulvar hematoma

d. Ureteral injury

e. Use of local analgesia for repair

the answer is below…

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